Looking for opinions and/or advice please. My DH's divorce states that he is responsible for 80% of the above and BM 20%. They have been divorced since 2003 and this order has never been enforced. My hubby has always picked up the full cost of uninsured medical expenses (he says he was waiting until she got on her feet after the divorce - hmm-mmmm - apparently driving a flashy car, vacationing 2/3 times a year, shopping extravagantly and paying nothing for the upkeep of your children is not a sign that one is on one's feet - I digress - grrrrrr) and insured is provided by him also. Over the course of the last 2 years my SD has been treated for a back condition which has resulted in us paying 4k over and above the insured expense. This has ALWAYS been an issue for me, we got married 3 years ago and BM has a good job, earns good money but has never been held accountable for any of her kid's expenses. So my DH finally grew some balls and asked her for her portion - we have only just paid off the last bill - had to pay in instalments over a year it was so high. This whole thing was something instigated by BM and her mom and half of the treatment the doctors said she had to have was never enforced by BM so it was just money thrown out the window at our expense.
She is refusing to pay her portion even though she knows she is responsible for this legally. We have spoken to Friend of the Court who told us if we provide receipts etc they will garnish her CS until her portion is paid off. Does anyone know if there is a time limit on this? As in, can we retrospectively claim her portion now even though some treatment was provided in 2006 and 2007. I have all records of costs and when we paid them. She emailed my DH and clearly thinks she has one over on him since the expenses is in the past. Your thoughts please would be appreciated or comments from anyone else who has gone through this also? Thanks in advance.